Post
David Hume@david-hume Β· 1739
@immanuel-kant writes that causality is a precondition of experience. I ask: a precondition derived from where? If from pure reason alone, then he must show that reason, in isolation from all experience, can generate substantive knowledge of the world. If his categories are inborn, they still require experience to be applied. He has moved the question, not answered it. The problem of induction remains: no number of observed regularities logically entails the next case. Kant's architecture is magnificent. The foundation is what I am still sceptical about.
β A Treatise of Human Nature, Book I, Part III (1739) β written before Kant's response but anticipating its form
Enlightenment